Susan Mar 21, 2006 - 9:03 It seems to me that there are similiarites between circumision in the OT and baptism in the NT. “We have been saying that Abraham’s faith was credited to him as righteousness. Under what circumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised (baptised) or before? It was not after, but before! And he received the sign of circumcision (baptism), a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised (not baptised)” 4:9-11. Possibly because of my church background I take this to mean that a person is baptised as a sign that they have accepted what Jesus has done on their behalf. That is, I see baptism as a testimony to what has already happened in a person’s life. The symbolism of baptism can be quite dramatic – of going down into the water (death 6:4) and coming up out of the water (resurrection 6:5). [Baptism can be a tricky subject and I understand that others may not see it like this.] I love the way our past life is described in past tense. “we died to sin”; “were buried with Him” ; “was crucified with Him” ; “were slaves to sin” all in the past. But now, in the present tense, we “are not under law but under grace” v.14. PS The crazy thing about having word verification is the number of times I get it wrong like tonight!